The Dilemma: Ineloquent Arabic or Malevolent Deity? Quran Chapter 17:16

Adapted from Sam Shamoun's article here:

"Allah can even command people to act immorally in order to destroy them!

And when We would destroy a township We send commandment to its folk who live at ease, and afterward they commit abomination therein, and so the Word (of doom) hath effect for it, and we annihilate it with complete annihilation. S. 17:16 Pickthall

Notice that Allah sends commands with the intention of destroying the people, not saving them. In other words, Allah has already decided beforehand that he will destroy the town and will do so by sending them commands that they will not perform. According to Egyptian Christian writer and scholar, Dr. Labib Mikhail, the text actually implies that Allah is commanding the people to commit evil in order to destroy them:

I have to mention, as one who mastered the Arabic as my first language and who has read the different versions of the Koran, that some of who translated the Koran into English were not honest; they tried to deceive the English speaking reader. Here are a few examples of their deception. 

(4) In Surat Al-Isra we read this Arabic verse in the Koran, where Allah is saying: 

Wa eza aradna an nohlika kariatan amarna motrifiha fafasako feha fahaqa Alliah alkowl fadamarnaha (Surat Al-Isra 17:16) 

The correct translation of this verse should be: 

And when we (Allah) decide to destroy a village, we send a definite command to those who lead a life of luxury in it to commit lewdness, and thus the word of torment is justified against them. Then we destroy it with complete destruction. 

This means that when Allah wants to destroy a village that he will command the elite of that town to commit gross sins. Then after that he will punish them because they obeyed his commands. (Mikhail, Islam, Muhammad and the Koran: A Documented Analysis [Blessed Hope Ministry, Springfield VA; Second edition, Revised and Expanded 2002; second edition], pp. 111, 112-113, here is also a link to the first edition of his book)

The late Christian writer ‘Abdallah Abd al-‘Fadi wrote:

Does God desire to destroy the people he created? Would He really command people who live at ease in a certain place to commit ungodliness, so that they would be worthy of punishment, together with the poor who live among them? Is this compatible with God’s justice, holiness and faithfulness? How could anyone ascribe to God such infamy, injustice and ungodliness? Besides, the Qur’an contradicts this statement in many other places… (Al-‘Fadi, Is the Qur’an Infallible? [Light of Life, P.O. Box 13, A-9503 Villach, Austria], p. 131)"

To add to what Shamoun is saying.

Many Muslim translations seek to hide this problem, such as this one:

When We decide to destroy a town We warn the rich ones therein who commit evil. Thus it becomes deserving to destruction and We destroy its very foundations (Muhammad Sarwar)

If you translate even one word differently the entire meaning becomes different:

When We decide to destroy a town We command the rich ones therein who commit evil. Thus it becomes deserving to destruction and We destroy its very foundations

Along side of Muslim translators, various Muslim exegetes attempt to explain this passage away by inserting various words and ideas into the text that don't exist:

Here a definite form of Divine procedure for the destruction of a people has been stated. When the well-to-do people of a habitation become disobedient, it is a portent that it is doomed to destruction. After their persistent and continuous transgression, the well-to-do people become so obdurate in their disobedience that they begin to discard the instinctive dictates of their conscience. The same thing has been stated in v. 16: "When We decree that a habitation should be destroyed We give Commands to its well-to-do people and they show disobedience." This is because Allah has created conscience for the guidance of man. Therefore, the dictates of conscience are really the commands of Allah. Thus it has become quite obvious that by "When We decree that a habitation should be destroyed" is not meant that Allah intends to destroy it without any reason. It is destroyed because AFTER THEIR DISOBEDIENCE "that habitation incurs Our just wrath and We totally exterminate it." The habitation deserves such a punishment because its common people follow the well-to-do people who are the factual leaders of a community and are mainly responsible for the corruption of the community. At first the well-to-do people commit acts of disobedience, wickedness, mischief, cruelty and tyranny and then the common people follow them and incur the torment of Allah. Incidentally, this is a warning for every community that it should be very discreet and prudent in choosing and electing its leaders and rulers, for if the latter are mean and wicked, they will inevitably lead the community to destruction. (Sayyid Abul Ala Maududi - Tafhim al-Qur'an)

Here are a few more:

And when We desire to destroy a town We command its affluent ones, those [inhabitants] of its who enjoy the graces [of God], meaning its leaders, [We command them] to obedience, by the tongue of Our messengers; but they fall into immorality therein, REBELLING against Our command, and so the Word is justified concerning it, that it should be chastised, and We destroy it utterly, We annihilate it by annihilating its inhabitants and leaving it in ruins. (Al-Jalalayn) 

(And when We would destroy a township We send commandment to its folk who live at ease) We send commandments to its leaders and tyrants TO OBEY; it is also said that this means: We increase the number of its chiefs, tyrants and wealthy people; and it is also said that this means: WE ROUSE against them their tyrants and leaders, (and afterward they commit abomination therein) they commit acts of disobedience therein, (and so the Word (of doom) hath effect for it) its destruction takes effect, (and We annihilate it with complete annihilation) We completely destroy them. (Tanwîr al-Miqbâs min Tafsîr Ibn ‘Abbâs)

Interestingly enough Al Jalalayn has brought out the clear explicit meaning of the text in their third offered interpretation.

The most serious problem here of course is the idea that "We command it's rich TO OBEY therein they commit sin" is simply an eisegesis, and requires adding to the Quran. This actually demonstrates how poor the grammar of the Quran is e.g. since Allah is unable to communicate clearly through the supremely eloquent Quranic Arabic, we clearly see multiple contradicting chaotic interpretations!

But the Quran is not only suppose to be clear in it's message, it's meant to be the best of Arabic grammar that exists:

Narrated Abu Huraira:

The Prophet said, "I have been given the keys of eloquent speech and given victory with awe (cast into the hearts of the enemy), and while I was sleeping last night, the keys of the treasures of the earth were brought to me till they were put in my hand." Abu Huraira added: Allah's Apostle left (this world) and now you people are carrying those treasures from place to place. (Sahih al-Bukhari, Volume 9, Book 87, Number 127)

And:

Say, ‘Should all humans and jinn rally to bring the like of this Quran, they will not bring its like, even if they assisted one another.’ 17:88 And: 

And if you are in doubt concerning that We have sent down on Our servant, then bring a sura like it, and call your witnesses, apart from God, if you are truthful. 2:23 

Therefore the innate superiority of the Quranic Arabic is allegedly meant to be a perspicuous fact. However Muslims are in a dilemma, either the Quranic Arabic is not perfect (which falsies the Quran) or Muslims must confess Allah commands the leaders of towns he wants to destroy to commit lewdness, so that he can deservedly destroy the town.

(For more references demonstrating Allah predetermines humans to perform sin so that he can destroy them visit here.)