Paul Williams assumes because the Shema says the Lord is one, it is specifically referring to his personhood. On what basis does Paul Williams assume because the Bible says that God is one, that God is one in personhood but he is not one in attribute?
I will anticipate that Paul will most likely assume my question is nonsensical in light of the testimony of scripture that God has a multiplicity of attributes, so therefore the Shema couldn't be conveying that God is one in attribute.
Basically Paul Williams would be working off of these true premises to disprove the Shema refers to God being in one attribute.
- Shema says the Lord is ONE
- The Bible depicts God as having more than ONE attribute
- So therefore the Shema isn't referring to the attribute(s) of God
- God is referred to as one God
- God has multiple attributes
- Therefore God is One but yet has multiple attributes
This is what genesis 19: 18-24 says:
But Lot said to them, “No, my lords,b please! 19 Yourc servant has found favor in yourd eyes, and youe have shown great kindness to me in sparing my life. But I can’t flee to the mountains; this disaster will overtake me, and I’ll die. 20 Look, here is a town near enough to run to, and it is small. Let me flee to it—it is very small, isn’t it? Then my life will be spared.” 21 He said to him, “Very well, I will grant this request too; I will not overthrow the town you speak of. 22 But flee there quickly, because I cannot do anything until you reach it.” (That is why the town was called Zoar.f ) 23 By the time Lot reached Zoar, the sun had risen over the land. 24 Then the Lord rained down burning sulfur on Sodom and Gomorrah—from the Lord out of the heavens. 25 Thus he overthrew those cities and the entire plain, destroying all those living in the cities—and also the vegetation.
In the previous passage two distinct persons are referred to YHWH, the Hebrew text literally reads YHWH. If more than one person being referred to YHWH is polytheism how in the world does the Old Testament text maintain that God is ONE?
And notice the commentary that the book of Amos in which God himself testifies someone other than himself who is referred to as YHWH destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah.\
Amos 4:11 I have overthrown some of you, as God overthrew Sodom and Gomorrah, and ye were as a firebrand plucked out of the burning: yet have ye not returned unto me, saith the LORD.In the book of Isaiah, God says the very same testimony that someone other them himself who happens to be YHWH overthrew Sodom and Gomorrah.
Isaiah 13:17-19 See, I will stir up against them the Medes,
who do not care for silver and have no delight in gold.
18 Their bows will strike down the young men; they will have no mercy on infants, nor will they look with compassion on children.
19 Babylon, the jewel of kingdoms,
the pride and glory of the Babylonians,[b]will be overthrown by God like Sodom and Gomorrah.
20 She will never be inhabited
With that being said here are premises that refutes that the Shema refers to God being ONE in Personhood.
- Shema says the Lord is ONE
- The Bible depicts God as being more than ONE PERSON
- So therefore the Shema isn't referring to the PERSONHOOD OF GOD
- God is referred to as one God
- God is depicted as being multi -personal
- Therefore God is One but yet is multi -personal
And he would have to explain why does the Bible refer to more than one person as YHWH? Also If God existing as more than one person is polytheism, why does the bible affirm monotheism in light of it depicting God as mult-personal?
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