Quranic pluralism - an Islamic dilemma far worse than the Trinity

[Updated/Revised 5/12/18 Yet To Be Completed]

A popular criticism against the Christian dogma of the Trinity states that Trinitarianism is logically incoherent, that is: it either collapses into modalism or tritheism. In this post, I will take the latter (tritheism) criticism for granted. Typically and straightforwardly, it's mainly stated as: "Basic math: 1+1+1=3 gods". I will then ask myself, on whether a similar (but not identical) criticism could be applied to any doctrine within Islam. One good place to start searching could be, Islam's self-purported primary basis: the Qur'an. Therefore we are looking for any possible existing Qur'anic pluralism.

But before, I continue, I must observe that notably Trinitarians do not reject embracing Sunni Orthodox Islam based on the following grounds (the rejection of a 'complex pluralist unity' is not justified on Christian grounding, there has to be other good reasons to reject orthodox Islam), rather I simply wish to apply some polemically charged and apologetically contrived rhetoric (that has previously been applied to Christianity, especially the Christian doctrine of the Trinity) to various aspects of Islamic thought and hope that these individual Muslims be consistent and either cease to argue against the Trinity on similar grounds, or concur that this same argument must be applied to Islam with equal merit and force and therefore undermine both religious traditions but in different ways.

The nature of the Qur'an is a hotly-disputed topic, even among Muslims. However what is not disputed by Ahlus Sunnah Wa Jammah is the way in which the Qur'an was expressed to the Prophet Mohammed (SWS). Ibn Abbas narrated that the Prophet said: “Jibreel taught me one style and I reviewed it until he taught me more, and I kept asking him for more and he gave me more until finally there were seven styles". That is "styles" of the  "Qur'an". 

One Muslim expert said, there are over 40 differing scholarly opinions on what the styles revealed to the Prophet were (Arabic plural: ahruf/Arabic sing. harf). Nonetheless in his view, one of the best opinions was that the 7 styles (ahruf), consist of variation in these manners:

  1. The wording may differ but the meaning is the same
  2. If there is a different meaning then it is by way of variations on a theme, not opposing and contradictory

Later Muslims thought that "al-ahruf al-saba’ (the seven styles) were al-qiraa’aat al-saba’ (the seven recitations) because they happened to be the same number. Some people thought that the styles (ahruf) were the recitations, but this is a mistake.The seven recitations are one of the seven styles, and this is the style that ‘Uthmaan chose for all the Muslims. When ‘Uthmaan made copies of the Qur’aan, he did so according to one style (harf), but he omitted the dots and vowel points so that some other styles could also be accommodated. So the Mus-haf that was copied in his time could be read according to other styles, and whatever styles were accommodated by the Mus-haf of ‘Uthmaan remained in use, and the styles that could not be accommodated fell into disuse. The people had started to criticize one another for reciting differently, so ‘Uthmaan united them by giving them one style (harf) of the Qur’aan."


The focus of this post, will not be the Uthmanic Qur'an, but the Qur'an given to Mohammed (SWS) as approved of by Allah visa vie the angel Jibreel. The Qur'an that was revealed to Mohammed was seven styles (arabic: ahruf), that is 'seven' styles of the Qur'an existed. Q is H1, H2, H3, H4, H5, H6, H7, all of which are sent to the Prophet, all of which are the Qur'an. Each of these unique seven styles is also identical to the Quran: "H1 is Q, H2 is Q, H3 is Q, H4 is Q, H5 is Q, H6 is Q, H7 is Q". However no style (harf) is identical to the others (ahruf). None of the styles are identical to one another, but all are distinct from each other: "H7 is Q but is not H1, H2, H3, H4, H5, H6, yet H6 is Q but is not H1, H2, H3, H4, H5, H7, yet H5 is Q but is not H1, H2, H3, H4, H6, H7, yet H4 is Q but is not H1, H2, H3, H5, H6, H7, yet H3 is Q but is not H1, H2, H4, H5, H6, H7, yet H2 is Q but is not H1, H3, H4, H5, H6, H7, yet H1 is Q but is not H2, H3, H4, H5, H6, H7" 


Here is an illustration and an analogy showing how the same problem can be applied to the Qiraaat (thanks to the brother Denis Giron):

Each individual harf (style) exists as the complete Quran, independently from any other style, as the styles are distinct and not identical. The logic is vividly incoherent: Each style which is the complete Quran is not another style which is also the fully complete Quran. Yet both styles are identical to the Qur'an, yet the Qur'an is identical all of these various unique styles.

A further problem is that if the Qur'an just is identical with every style, but what happens when each unique style is identical with the complete Qur'an 

  • H1 (a distinct style of the Quran) = the fully complete Quran ( and Quran just is identical with every style)
  • H2 = CQ (which is seven styles)...
  • H3 = CQ (seven styles)
  • H4 = CQ (seven styles)
  • H5 = CQ (seven styles)
  • H6 = CQ (seven styles)
  • H7 = CQ (seven styles)

If H1 = CQ, and CQ = just is identical, that is the same as all the styles, then H1 is just synonymous with the Qur'an which is synonymous with all the styles and therefore H1 is every style. and there are no real distinctions, and so you have the eqivolent of Qur'anic modalism rather than Qur'anic pluralism. However if the differences aren't real, then all written and oral variation that exists among the Qur'an today are in fact not legitimate differences but man-made. 

On the the other hand if each of the seven style is the fully complete Quran and the Quran is seven styles, then we have 49 completely complete Qurans. If those individual Muslims don't acknowledge this, then you are changing the definition of Qur'an as you please (just as Trinitarians does with "God"). Ultimately orthodox Muslims claim the Quran was revealed as seven styles. But notice even this sentence, the "Qur'an" here is being spoken of as an abstract Qur'an that is the source of all the seven styles, for example, it's not saying that H2 or H3 revealed the other styles, it's referring to the source of all the styles, independently from the styles themselves, so the Qur'an here again is redesignated a different meaning. This while also claiming each style is a complete Quran which they have already predefined as revealed in seven styles. According to Mohammed the Quran was revealed in seven different styles/ways/modes literally 'words/letters' (translated from the Arabic plural of harf: ahruf) yet each style fully constitutes a complete Quran, yet none of the styles is precisely identical with the other. 

Yet Muslim refer to the Quran in the singular and believe there is only one single Quran. But which single Quran is it that they believe in? Each single style consists of the complete Quran that is distinct from the other styles which are also considered the complete Quran. How could each style be the totally complete Qur'an in and of themselves without the other styles? That would mean either each style is not the complete Qur'an and is just part of the Qur'an or that each style is a complete Qur'an in and of itself, but that means each styles is an independently totally complete Qur'an, making up seven Qurans. 

Perhaps the best option for the Muslims is to admit each style is an expression or form of the essence of the Quran and represents the Quran perfectly, but can never actually be the complete Quran. 

“You cannot say “each harf (mode) is fully the Quran” without implying seven Qurans. In fact let me illustrate this reasoning for you. According to Muslim criticisms of the Trinity, if the Father is fully God, and the Son is fully God and the Holy Spirit is fully God, then there are THREE DISTINCT GODS. Likewise if each harf is fully the Quran, then there are SEVEN DISTINCT QURANS.” (source)

Zawadi said:

“This Qur’an has been revealed to be recited in seven different ways, so recite of it whichever (way) is easier for you (or read as much of it as may be easy for you).”” 

What does it say? - It says that there is ONE QUR’AN. Not seven Qur’ans. - This one Qur’an has seven different ways in which it could be recited. So……. one Qur’an, but seven ways. Each way is considered the complete Qur’an. 

The Prophet said that we could choose whichever WAY (singular) we like to recite. So here the Prophet said that we don’t need to know all seven ways, rather one way is enough. 

“Now…….. did the Prophet consider each way to be offering us the complete Qur’an? The answer is yes.” How do we know? Because he wouldn’t say that it’s okay for us to restrict ourselves to an incomplete Qur’an. He wouldn’t say that an incomplete Qur’an is sufficient.” (source)

Muslims are allowed to recite one style (instead of all seven), and this one style/way is the complete Quran. Yet the other styles are also the complete Quran.  Now this implies that each style is identical to the other mode since they consist of the complete Quran, they are the exact same complete Quran, yet Zawadi clearly distinguishes between these styles and believes differences actually exist between the styles. So how does each styles consist of the complete Quran while being distinct from the other styles which are also the fully complete Quran? This of course is irrational, ABSURD!

"Is this ahruf (let's say for example the 3rd one) being the complete Qur'an - is it the ONLY TRUE QUR'AN? 

"Are the all of the styles together the only true Quran? 

or are they individually the only true Quran? If they are individually the only true Quran, then you have seven Qurans all claiming to be the only true complete version of the Quran!

If the third style is the only true Quran, what about the others?

If the styles together are the only true Quran, the how is a style mode by itself the only true Quran without the others? If the styles seperate or independently from one another are the only true Qur'an then how can they be viewed as the complete Qur'an when collectively all put together? Something complete cannot become  more complete. 

When Allah sent down this style - was it the only true Qur'an  along with the other styles whom he sent? 

Does the six others being distinct from the first style, called the only true Qur'an take away from the other six being the only true Qur'an?

In the beginning was the harf, and the harf was with Qur'an and harf was Qur'an

An acceptance of pluralism, whether Trinitarian or Quranic, as Royalson points out the H1 is not identical with the Quran in the sense that it is not all of the other styles, yet it is fully the Quran in the sense that it fully consists of what the Quran is, the complete and perfect Quran.

Further more if one style is the only fully and complete and entire Quran, does this mean the other styles are not the Quran, as this is the reasoning Muslims apply to Jesus Christ!

Problem II - The meaning and referent of "Qur'an"


But it gets worse because now when we read the Quran, we must discover which form of the Quran is being referred to in any given sentence in which the Quran refers to itself. 

For example is the Quran referring to itself collectively (all seven modes), or individually (one of the seven modes), or in a plurality (several of the seven modes) and is the Quran referring to itself in the way it exists in heaven, in Allah's attribute of Speech, or inside creation in the various states it exists in? 

This of course means we have to split the Quran up by definition making more Qurans than even seven Qurans, as I said to Zawadi:

"15:9 when it speaks of the Quran according to Zawadi must mean that when the Quran refers to itself it can refer to ANY HARF or any variant or AMOUNT of ahruf, since each HARF is the full Quran! This means Zawadi doesn’t know which HARF was preserved in this case, nor what combination of ahruf he has. But since he believes parts of ahruf were preserved he doesn't know what parts of the Quran he really has." (source)

But not only do you have to split the Quran up into these categories you have to decide which is the actual Quran, Allah then preserved, you then have to split the Quran up from the previous Quran sent down to David and other prophets, to the Quran sent to Mohammed:

“They say: "O thou to whom the Message is being revealed! truly thou art mad (or possessed)! 
"Why bringest thou not angels to us if it be that thou hast the Truth?" We send not the angels down except for just cause: if they came (to the ungodly), behold! no respite would they have! We have, without doubt, sent down the Message; and We will assuredly guard it (from corruption). 

We did send apostles before thee amongst the religious sects of old: But never came an apostle to them but they mocked him. Even so do we let it creep into the hearts of the sinners -That they should not believe in the (Message); but the ways of the ancients have passed away. The Prophet said… “so recite of it whichever (way) is easier for you”. 15:6-13 

Now Zawadi knows “the message(thikri)” here is referring to the Quran. The same Arabic word “thikri” is used elsewhere in the Quran to refer to the Quran being revealed to Mohammed but in the very same verse it refers to the previous followers of the Quran (from before Mohammed’s time):

"And We sent not (as Our messengers) before thee other than men, whom We inspired. Ask the followers of the Reminder (thikri) if ye know not?" S. 21:7 Pickthall 

"And indeed it is a revelation of the Lord of the worlds - brought down by the trustworthy spirit – upon your heart, so that you be one of the warners – [revealed] in a clear Arabic dialect - and indeed it is [also] in the scriptures (Arabic- Zubur) of old. Is it no evidence for them that the scholars of the Israelites know him [to be a true prophet]?" 26:192-197 

If it is still not made clear that the Quran was sent down earlier this will settle it: 

Narrated Abu Huraira: The Prophet said, 'The recitation of the Quran was made light and easy for David that he used to have his riding animal be saddled while he would finish the recitation of the Quran before the servant had saddled it.' (Sahih al-Bukhari, Volume 6, Book 60, Number 237) 

Narrated Abu Huraira: The Prophet said, 'The reciting of the Zabur (i.e. Psalms) was made easy for David. He used to order that his riding animals be saddled, and would finish reciting the Zabur before they were saddled. And he would never eat except from the earnings of his manual work." (Sahih al-Bukhari, Volume 4, Book 55, Number 628) 

But the same Quran that Zawadi thinks is seven styles, and each of these styles is the complete Quran unfortunately never existed according to the top reciter and teacher of the Quran, Ibn Masud: al-Masahif, 1/69, narrates with his chain from Fulfula al-Ja’fi who said, 

“I was one of those who went to Abdullah regarding the Masahif, so when we entered upon him one of us said, ‘We did not come here to visit you, but we came when this news reached us’, he responded, ‘Indeed the Qur’an was sent down to you Prophet from seven doors with seven different Ahruf (or Qira’ah, recitation style), the books that were before you were sent down FROM ONE DOOR, with ONE READING STYLE, and its meaning is one.” 

Zawadi’s bizarre interpretation that each style is the fully complete perfect Quran combined with the statements in the Quran and Authentic Reports contradict his favorite Ibn Masud narration. 

As it turns out the Quran never existed as seven Qurans until the Quran was sent down to Mohammed, yet the Quran and the Authentic Reports all teach the very same Quran sent to Muhammad was sent before hand! This my friends is the ultimate confusion of the Quran." (source)

In conclusion we have seen a parallel shown between the seven modes of the Quran (in Islam) and the three persons of God (in Christianity) and drawn upon an inconsistency that the Muslims utilizes in critiquing his theological opponents, while proclaiming they only believe in one Qur'an and not seven.

Critical Review of "Why I No Longer Believe In God (Documentary) Full Movie" with Mike Mai




Mike Mai was a SDA (Seventh-Day-Adventist) PIT (Pastor-In-Training) who discovered the founder of his Church: Ellen G. White was actually a false prophetess. Ultimately this lead Mike to inevitably question everything, not merely his own denomination and Church, but his own faith in the Bible, and Christianity as a whole, and finally God's existence. Mike eventually became an atheist and at the end of his documentary he seems to exhibit or express at-least some anti-theistic sentiment.

I recommend watching his documentary as a whole to hear all of Mike's views in context and understand and try to be sympathetic to his journey. Many former-Christians (including those who become Atheists) happen to go through a similar journey. As Mike suggested they are also merely humans and need love like all of us. I know I felt someone what emotionally connected as a reminder of my own story. I am not going to be addressing Mike's intentions or honesty here. I am not even going to call Mike unto Christianity, Jesus, the Bible or faith. I am only going to offer some academic disagreement. Specifically I will address the sections: "The Bible & Christianity" (PART IV: 27:23-44:35) and "The Science of God" (PART V: 44:35-52:45) that is from 27:23-52:45.

The positive impression I get is that Mike is a good, decent and honest guy. I agreed with virtually everything from 0:00-27:23. I appreciated the sincere expression of his journey from belief to disbelief (or "non-belief") and he definitely has film-producing/editing skills along with a great narrative voice. He is obviously read and intelligent. I also enjoyed some of his own observations such as the point about evangelism causing more damnation than salvation, really interesting, and as a Universalist, I must fully concur and agree with this critique of the traditional view. 

I have some areas of disagreement, or what I view to be constructive feedback/criticism.

I will begin with what I view as the biggest blunders. The last segment in the Christianity-Bible section seems to be the most disappointing. The theory that Jesus is "an observable revision of numerous previous characters" otherwise known as the mythicist "pagan-copy-cat hypothesis" which was even a controversial theory (and rejected by the vast majority) among mythicists in the 19th century and some early scholars in the early 20th century, has been completely abandoned by mainstream academia due to robust scholarly research that even the most dogmatic fundamentalist Christian will be able to point out (here are some examples): 





Where I really raised an eye-brow was after he advocated this theory [41:12-42:09]. He then immediately contradicted it by pointing to the view of an Orthodox Jew who in-turn purported the historical Jesus was really "one of them" (i.e. Jewish). But this is so trivial as to be not even be controversial in the slightest. Every scholar in the field believes Jesus was a Jew, that is a Judean, raised in Nazareth, Galilee. The Bible itself attests to this fact. But if this is true, how could Jesus merely be an amalgamation or composite of pagan saviors and deities? Either he is a real historical person who lived in the province of Judea under the Roman empire or he was a comport of various mythologies, showing he belongs in the category of legend or myth over that of a real historical Jewish man. 

The more plausible theory (and hence consensus position), of course is that Jesus was merely a Jewish man. However, even on this account he (or his Orthodox Jewish colleague) get some basic facts wrong.

There is no evidence Jesus was a "greater teacher of Hillel the elder", zero, zilch, zada. There is no evidence Jesus knew Hillel or even knew of him. We can speculate that they "may" have known "of" one other (one or both), but it's simply a guess, and the reasoning for this would only be circumstantial. 

Similarly there is no evidence Hillel wrote the Talmud (which came much, much later) or was viewed by the Sahendrin as a nemesis (that comes from late Talmudic tradition). 

Mike gave examples of the similarity between the doctrine of Jesus and Hillel (e.g. the golden rule), but that was common knowledge among the Jewish faith of the time. Torah observant Jews were accustomed to such views and would have been largely aware of such teaching.

It is obvious that Jesus neither lived in a vacuum, or remained isolated from his heritage. He would have been influenced by his environment and as an observant-Jew believing the teachings of the Torah, it is clear he even partook in an inter-faith debate among Pharisees who variously interpreted the Law within their unique schools of thought. 

The Talmud was not written "long before Jesus" as Mike suggests, but the Talmud is dated by scholars at-earliest to the 4th-5th centuries (written in a dialect of Syrio-Aramaic contemporary to that period, a dialect that simply did not exist at the time of Jesus in the first century) and wasn't fully edited to be complete until the 7th-8th century. 

Some scholars have argued some traditions in the Talmud are earlier and can be dated to the second century, but very few are dated to the first century. This Hillel saying referenced could stem from the first century, because it is most likely a common doctrine among the period, however it is clear Jesus (like most teachers) gave his own unique expression and articulation of the doctrine. 

The most prolific writers in the world at the time, were not in Jerusalem. In-fact the greatest figure of the province and Jerusalem in-particular, the Roman pontificate Pontius Pilate is not attested to by any Judean Romans or Jews, and the only exclusive documentary evidence of his existence comes from Philo of Alexandria, Egypt, who visited Jerusalem. 

There is no record of Jesus or his 12 disciples "lobbying the emperor of Rome himself" so we wouldn't expect any contemporary reports of that. 

Finally, perhaps while it is true that the authors of the gospel imported more theological importance and significance in their depiction of Jesus in the Gospels, that is because they were not merely historians, but theologians, preaching the Resurrection, which they genuinely believed in, and they were merely using the contemporary literary devices of their own genre to emphatically communicate that belief.

I was also a former Christian who deconverted over along-process of doubt, skepticism, varying agnosticism and criticism, it took me many years, but I finally ended up as an atheist. Ironically after 6-7 years as an atheist I had another deconversion process from atheism to theism, but that's for another time. I thought given my past-experience I might relate to this section the most, but I can't say I did. Mike had some profound epiphanies, like the realization that variations of the flood story pre-exist the Torah or that the Bible is not inerrant, but errs and has many contradictions. But even large sections of conservative evangelical scholarship have recognized such realities and remain unhinged. 

THE FLOOD 


To begin with I'm not a YEC, nor do I accept a Global Flood Hypothesis. In-fact ever since my original deconversion from Theism, I have never accepted Creationism again and I vehemently condemn such a belief. But I think I do slightly understand their views better than Shermer. The idea for creationists is not that 10 million species existed at the time of the flood and they were all stored on-board, but a vastly smaller quantity. They believe rapid-speciation occurred after the flood, producing most of the complexity and biological diversity we observe today. 

But the simple fact is that the only camp to believe in a global-flood among Christians are the YECs who are scorned by the rest of Christendom. There are not only good reasons scientifically to reject such a view, but Biblically as-well.

For starters the word translated for "earth" in the Hebrew Scripture is also translated as just "land". And we often read our own import into texts, but the world at that time consisted of what scholars call the: Ancient Near East. That is it barely went beyond Egypt (I think maybe a couple authors mention some places further south of Egypt), and eastward the biggest empires known to the Biblical authors were the Babylonians, Assyrians and Persians, but never say: the Indians and Asians. 

Hence despite the occasional exhaustive language we read in our translation like "all/every beast, animal etc" what we are dealing with from our stand point, looking back into history is a significant flood that took place in ANE, that is a local flood to us, but to them a universal one, decimating all.

While YEC "scientists" cannot fathom anything outside of hyper-literalism, the vast majority of Scholars in Biblical studies (including the religious and secular ones) have no trouble at all in seeing how this interpretive dynamic plays a major role. The world as understood by Ancient Israelites was not the world understood by post-modern contemporary westerners. For them the flood was of earthly proportions and for us interpreting an ancient text we can see the localization of the phenomena, because the Earth is a sphere, and we are well aware of borders existing outside the Ancient East. 

I can easily imagine a traditional fundamentalist coming up with an accommodating framework for factoring in instances of local flood-traditions. They may argue that the Epic of Gilgamesh is evidence in favour of the Biblical account, since it doesn't completely match up with the Genesis narrative (it can't be collusion or plagiarism), and Moses and his enslaved Egyptian peers were not directly influenced by the Sumerian or Babylonian empire. This would mean that multiple flood-traditions were handed down to various tribes in distinct empires, successively generation upon generation and none of them completely corroborative (variance occurs upon oral development), but showing all of them must stem from an even more common and ancient origin. In-fact I'm sure that would be a hypothesis even a historian or secularist would be inclined to accept, perhaps they may view the flood-narrative traditions as less universal or less broad, (as say the fundamentalist YEC), but the general thesis that a group of transnational flood-legends derive from a common source is reasonably plausible.

THE EXODUS 


Mike asserts there is no archaeological evidence to support the Exodus, but even the non-fundamentalist, liberals, and various historians, egyptologists and secularists have interpreted various evidences or archaeological findings as supporting the Exodus account. I don't see Mike as having provided a fair usage or treatment and analysis or the various contrasting view-points. He appears to select the most obvious theories that support non-belief. Even among archaeologists, despite there being a tendency to be prone to the skeptical side of the Exodus, you don't seem to understand or at-least mention: there is no monolithic position. There is just the 'majority' position, but the 'majority' position itself has a bundle of holes that any fundamentalist can exploit as easily as someone attempting to discredit the fundamentalist position. That is of course because no interpretation of this history is fully cohesive, and all suffer from discrepancies. The question is this: Is the traditional Christian (or Jew) required to become committed to the least traditional position, which suffers from a similar historically dubious framework? There doesn't seem to be a reason to relinquish one view for another when both have historical difficulties, but at-least they have some historical elements, so they aren't completely arbitrary either.

DO CONTRADICTIONS MATTER?


Regarding the 'contradictions' brought up, I would be the first to agree there are multiple contradictions, discrepancies and errors in the Bible that cannot plausibly be reconciled. However most of the examples provided are not obviously irreconcilable. You could take them as all contradictory, but it isn't actually shown to be necessary requirement, or even the most plausible interpretation demanding the text be interpreted in a contradictory fashion. 

Besides, that would display a violation of the principle of charity, in that we could literally do that not only to any complex, vague ancient library of literature, but we can do the same with modern literature, even within the confounds of the same book by the same author. 

One major aim and key theme of hermeneutics is to understand the original intent of the author of any document and what they intend to communicate. That means we are all speculating to a degree, including those who have this kind of dogmatic certitude, that their own interpretation, that a contradiction exists has to be conclusive, when various passages could contain multiple layers of interpretation that are vague, ambiguous and could just as easily support a traditional reading, as much as a critical or more skeptical one. 

One obvious example is that in the Exodus narrative "no one can see God" there are actually multiple figures identified with and as "YHVH" including the Malach YHVH (Angel/Messenger of Lord/God) who also bears God's name. Mike had a conversation with an Orthodox Jew and mention Rabbinical Judaism, you can even find late-rabbinic traditions identifying this figure, known as Metatron with the lesser YHVH, who can be seen, and therefore is able to reveal YHVH himself who cannot be seen. So it could easily have one of them specifically in mind. 

John of course also has one person in mind who can't be seen (John 1:18;6:46) namely the Father, but clearly not the Son, who are also both known as YHVH (Lord/God).

Ultimately, Mike only briefly passed over his belief that a divine revelation/scripture cannot have even 'a little mistake' or 'honest mistake' but without giving an account as to why? An explanation that would factor in a human aspect or showing an understanding of how containing any human dynamic would substantially effect the production and editing process. The human dimension of the Scripture would have to include human flaw, but also be conjoint at the hip with God's divine will and working sovereignty in the production of such literature. 

Any account defending any form of 'inerrancy' must show that one is possible, and even plausible given the condition of humanity, human editors, writers and producers. But even if the Bible is not inerrant, it still wouldn't follow that it isn't infallible and inspired, in it's intended purpose for the only question would remain is how God accomplishes his inspiration without errancy, which as you can imagine, theologians have over half a dozen or so seemingly plausible models, elaborating on such thesis. So that isn't going to phase them. 

But even if the Bible wasn't inerrant, inspired or infallible, that wouldn't negate the death and Resurrection of Jesus Christ, the only explicit pillar of the faith identified in the Pauline corpus as elementary and fundamental to Christian life and belief, nor would it undermine the historical reality of Jesus or belief in Theism.

Ultimately the main problem with this argument is that it is unclear how if the Bible contains contradictions, that Christianity is in peril, or that even most conservative apologists would flinch. 

The Bible doesn't appear to have any verse implying it's own total and complete logical consistency or it's own purported freedom from error or alleged rational coherence, it doesn't even suggest the most trivial mundane passages would match such an imposed or projected standard. The authors of the Bible were not Greco/Roman philosophers or logicians concerned with metaphysics or the nature of reality and logic, but were interesting in articulating the expressed dynamic of how in their primitive understanding the human relates to the divine will, and how the structure of value relates to us in governing behavior, relationships and ideals like faith, love and hope. That of course is also an understanding of divine inspiration of the Bible. 

SCIENCE OF GOD


This section consists primarily of objections to I.D. and the defense of evolution. But it is fundamentally not clear why this is important or even relevant. I will even grant that I.D. is not true and evolution is true, God could still exist. More importantly, the Christian deity itself could still exist, even presuming Mike's conclusions are fully sound. 

I'm not seeing how this plays a significant role in Mike's own de-conversion process. Excluding mainly conservative sections of American Christianity, evolution doesn't appear to infringe upon believing Christians. Likewise, while I.D. played a role in American politics, the vast majority of the world's Christians, don't object. There are no court-cases over such a phenomena anywhere outside U.S.A, since both trials originally stem out of complex political situations influenced and contrived within the conservative Bible-Belt.

Therefore this section I would render non-exhaustive or simply: incomplete. I think it fails to address the best reasons for belief in Theism (and I mean any Theism not merely Christian Theism). It also doesn't address the more common mainstream arguments for God's existence, passed down to us by primarily the Judeo-Christian-Islamic philosophical tradition. I personally contend or have concluded the mainstream arguments are not compellingly persuasive, but the 'best' versions or forms of those arguments need to be deeply contemplated. 

Any serious thinker will find it difficult to just 'dismiss' anything outright, without a careful in-depth analysis and they won't just "cling" or "leech" to the first positive case made in advance of an argument for theism or merely emotionally latch onto a case made against an argument (for theism), without serious thought. I've often found any "opinion" or "narrative" that happens to conform with a bias we have a tendency to jump and leap at in agreement with, consume devoutly if you will, but most-often without serious study. And by serious study I don't mean: "hours" or even "days", I mean weeks, months and years of reflection. 

In conclusion on this section, I think it would be better to infer only agnosticism, over that of atheism or atheist-agnosticism, not that i'm requesting Mike change his view, I'm just logically drawing out these neutral observations don't determine theism one way or another. 

Does Islam Present Allah As A Deceiver? "Linguistic" Justification (PART II)

Before I resume our discussion of makr, it maybe useful to point out that the Qur'anic identification of Allah with deceit is by no means contingent upon a single word or phrase in Arabic. The Quran employs several other Arabic words to denote Allah's deceit. In this post I will cite an absolute uncontested usage. Another word in describing the deception of Allah, that word is khida/khuda/khada. It is unambiguously translated as deceive in this germane passage:

"Verily, the hypocrites seek to deceive Allah, but it is He Who deceives them (Inna al-munafiqeena yukhadiaaoona Allaha wahuwa khadiaauhum). And when they stand up for As-Salat (the prayer), they stand with laziness and to be seen of men, and they do not remember Allah but little." S. 4:142 Hilali-Khan

Here, once again is the lexical meaning of this specific word:

Kh-Dal-Ayn = To hide/conceal, double or fold, deceive or outwit, pretend, to enter, vary in state/condition, refrain or refuse, relinquish, to be in little demand of, deviate from the right course, resist/unyield/incompliant, turn away and behave proudly
khada'a vb. (1) 
impf. act. 2:9, 8:62 
pcple. act. 4:142 
khada'a vb. (3) impf. act. 2:9, 4:142 
LL, V2, p: 344, 345, 346, 347 (Source)

The usage of Khda is rare, it only appears 5 times altogether in the Qur'an and only within 3 verses. Twice it occurs in 2:9, and then again twice in 4:142 and once in 8:62. The translators have taken this word to refer to deceit in all 5 usages. Since I've quoted the first two usages (4:142) I will proceed to quote the final 3. Notice how this term is used in the following references:

And if they intend to deceive you (yakhdaaooka), then verily, Allah is All-Sufficient for you. He it is Who has supported you with His Help and with the believers. S. 8:62 Hilali-Khan 

And:

They (think to) deceive Allah (yukhadiaaoona) and those who believe, while they only deceive (yakhdaaoona) themselves, and perceive (it) not! S. 2:9 Hilali-Khan 

The unbelievers are depicted as trying to deceive Muhammad and the believers. So there can be no doubt from the general and specific usage and the context that Allah also uses deception in deceiving them: "Verily, the hypocrites seek to deceive Allah, but it is He Who deceives them" (4:142).


One of the greatest Islamic exegetes Ibn Kathir who quotes this verse in the Qur'an and provides an explanation of the passage has been translated by Muslim translators unanimously as deceive:

"(Verily, the hypocrites seek to deceive Allah, but it is He Who deceives them.) There is no doubt that Allah can never be deceived, for He has perfect knowledge of the secrets and what the hearts conceal. However, the hypocrites, due to their ignorance, scarce knowledge and weak minds, think that since they were successful in deceiving people, using Islamic Law as a cover of safety for themselves, they will acquire the same status with Allah on the Day of Resurrection and deceive Him too. Allah states that on that Day, the hypocrites will swear to Him that they were on the path of righteousness and correctness thinking that such statement will benefit them with Allah. For instance, Allah said, (but it is He Who deceives them) means, He lures them further into injustice and misguidance. He also prevents them from reaching the truth in this life and on the Day of Resurrection." (QTafsirQur'an 4:142; or translated by Muhammad Saed Abdul-Rahman)

The Muslim translators who translated the following commentaries into English all unanimously agree with this translation of the citation (4:142). Tafsir Al Jalalyan is translated as: "He is tricking them". Tafsir Al-Qushairi as "He is tricking them" and later quoted as explaining: "God sends astray, you will never find for him a way". Tafsir Al-Tustari "The hypocrites try to deceive God, but it is He who causes them to be deceived" Tafsîr Ibn ‘Abbâs: "(Lo! the hypocrites) 'Abdullah Ibn Ubayy and his followers (seek to beguile Allah) they disbelieve in Him and oppose Him in secret and think that they are deceiving Him, (but it is Allah Who beguileth them)". (Tafsirs)


In this case, this rendering is supported by most translations of the Qur'an in English:

  • Ahmed: The hypocrites try to deceive God, but He (leads them to) deceive themselves. When they stand up for performing the service of prayer they do so indolently, only for show, and remember God but little, (English Translation

More than 30 English translations of the Qur'an including Muslims and non-Muslims render it this way or similarly: 

  • Muhammad Asad: Behold, the hypocrites seek to deceive God - the while it is He who causes them to be deceived [by themselves] And when they rise to pray, they rise reluctantly, only to be seen and praised by men, remembering God but seldom, 
  • M. M. Pickthall: Lo! the hypocrites seek to beguile Allah, but it is He Who beguileth them. When they stand up to worship they perform it languidly and to be seen of men, and are mindful of Allah but little; 
  • Dr. Laleh Bakhtiar: Truly, the ones who are hypocrites seek to trick God. And He is The One Who Deceives them, and when they stood up for formal prayer, they stood up lazily to make display to humanity. And they remember not God but a little, 
  • Wahiduddin KhanThe hypocrites seek to outwit God but it is He who outwits them. And when they stand up for prayer, they do so reluctantly and to be seen by others, and they hardly remember God at all. 
  • T.B.Irving: Hypocrites try to outwit God while He is outwitting them! Whenever they stand up to pray, they stand up lazily to be seen by other people and seldom mention God, 
  • Safi Kaskas: The hypocrites try to deceive God, but it is He who causes them to be deceived. They rise to pray, they rise reluctantly, only to be seen and praised by men, seldom remembering God, 
  • The Monotheist Group (2011 Edition): The hypocrites seek to deceive God, while He is deceiving them; and if they attend to the contact-method, they do so lazily, only to show the people; they do not remember God except very little. 
  • Abdel Haleem: The hypocrites try to deceive God, but it is He who causes them to be deceived. When they stand up to pray, they do so sluggishly, showing off in front of people, and remember God only a little, 
  • Abdul Majid Daryabadi: Verily the hypocrites would beguile Allah, whereas it is He who beguileth them, ; and when they stand up to prayer, they stand up languidly, making a show to the people, and they remember not Allah but little. 
  • Aisha Bewley: The hypocrites think they deceive Allah, but He is deceiving them. When they get up to pray, they get up lazily, showing off to people, and only remembering Allah a very little. 
  • Ali Ünal: The hypocrites would trick God, whereas it is God who "tricks" them (by causing them to fall into their own traps). When they rise to do the Prayer, they rise lazily, and to be seen by people (to show them that they are Muslims); and they do not remember God (within or outside the Prayer) save a little. 
  • Ali Quli Qara'i: The hypocrites indeed seek to deceive Allah, but it is He who outwits them. When they stand up for prayer, they stand up lazily, showing off to the people and not remembering Allah except a little, 
  • Hamid S. Aziz: Verily, the hypocrites seek to deceive Allah, but He deceives them; and when they rise up to pray, they rise up lazily to be seen of men, and little do they remember Allah; 
  • Muhammad Mahmoud Ghali: Surely the hypocrites try to deceive Allah, and He is deceiving them; and when they rise up for prayer, they rise up lazily, showing off to (other) men, and they do not remember Allah except a little. 
  • Muhammad Sarwar: The hypocrites try to deceive God but He, in fact, deceives them. They stand up in prayer lazily just to show that they pray, but, in truth they remember God very little. 
  • Muhammad Taqi Usmani: Surely, the hypocrites (try to) deceive Allah while He is the One who leaves them in deception. And when they stand for Salah, they stand up lazily, only to show people, and do not remember Allah but a little, 
  • Syed Vickar Ahamed: Surely, they, the hypocrites, search ways of deceiving Allah, but it is He Who will deceive (and reach over) them: When they stand up to prayer, they stand without sincerity, to be seen of men, but little do they hold Allah in remembrance; 
  • Umm Muhammad (Sahih International): Indeed, the hypocrites [think to] deceive Allah , but He is deceiving them. And when they stand for prayer, they stand lazily, showing [themselves to] the people and not remembering Allah except a little, 
  • Dr. Munir Munshey: The hypocrites seek to deceive Allah, but it is actually He Who dupes them. They are lethargic (and listless) when they stand for ´salat´ _ (they) only (wish) to be noticed by others (and just go through the motions of ´salat´). Little do they remember Allah! 
  • Talal A. Itani: The hypocrites try to deceive God, but He is deceiving them. And when they stand for prayer, they stand lazily, showing off in front of people, and remembering God only a little. 
  • Maududi: Behold, the hypocrites seek to deceive Allah, but it is they who are being deluded by Him. When they rise to Prayer, they rise reluctantly, and only to be seen by men. They remember Allah but little. 
  • Ali Bakhtiari Nejad: The hypocrites indeed (think that) they deceive God, while He is their deceiver, and when they perform the mandatory prayer they perform it lazily to be seen by the people and they seldom remember God. 
  • The Monotheist Group (2013 Edition): The hypocrites seek to deceive God, while He is deceiving them; and if they stand to make the contact prayer, they do so lazily, only to show the people; they do not remember God except very little. 
  • Mohammad Shafi: Indeed, the hypocrites strive to deceive Allah, and it is He, who deceives them! And when they stand up for prayer they stand with laziness. They do it only to show off to men and remember Allah but little. 
  • Faridul Haque: Undoubtedly the hypocrites, in their fancy, seek to deceive Allah whereas He will extinguish them while making them oblivious; and when they stand up for prayer, they do it unwillingly and for others to see, and they do not remember Allah except a little. 
  • Hasan Al-Fatih Qaribullah: The hypocrites seek to deceive Allah, but Allah is deceiving them. When they stand up to pray, they stand up lazily, showing off to the people and do not remember Allah, except a little, 
  • Muhammad Ahmed - Samira Ahmed: That the hypocrites deceive God, and He is deceiving them, and if they got up to the prayers, they got up lazy, they pretend/show off (to) the people, and they do not mention/remember God except a little. 
  • Rashad Khalifa: The hypocrites think that they are deceiving GOD, but He is the One who leads them on. When they get up for the Contact Prayer (Salat), they get up lazily. That is because they only show off in front of the people, and rarely do they think of GOD. 
  • Muhsin Khan & Muhammad al-Hilali: Verily, the hypocrites seek to deceive Allah, but it is He Who deceives them. And when they stand up for As-Salat (the prayer), they stand with laziness and to be seen of men, and they do not remember Allah but little. 
  • Arthur John Arberry: The hypocrites seek to trick God, but God is tricking them. When they stand up to pray they stand up lazily, showing off to the people and not remembering God save a little; 
  • Edward Henry Palmer: Verily, the hypocrites seek to deceive God, but He deceives them; and when they rise up to pray, they rise up lazily to be seen of men, and do not remember God, except a few; 
  • George Sale: The hypocrites act deceitfully with God, but he will deceive them; and when they stand up to pray, they stand carelesly, affecting to be seen of men, and remember not God, unless a little, 
  • John Medows Rodwell: The hypocrites would deceive God, but He will deceive them! When they stand up for prayer, they stand carelessly, to be seen of men, and they remember God but little: 
  • N J Dawood: The hypocrites seek to deceive God, but it is He who deceives them. When they rise to pray, they stand up sluggishly: they pray for the sake of ostentation and remember God but little, 
  • Sayyid Qutb: The hypocrites seek to deceive God, the while it is He who causes them to be deceived [by themselves]. When they rise to pray, they rise reluctantly, only to be seen by people, remembering God but seldom
  • Sayyed Abbas Sadr-Ameli: Verily the hypocrites seek to trick Allah, but He is tricking them. And, when they stand up For prayer they stand up lazily; showing off to the people, and they do not remember Allah save a little. 
  • Mir Aneesuddin: The hypocrites certainly (presume to) deceive Allah but He deceives them. And when they stand up for worship (salat), they stand up as if loaded with a burden, (just) to show to human beings and they do not remember Allah save a little. (English Qurans)

Does Islam Present Allah As A Deceiver? Lexical Justification (PART I)

A highly controversial and contentious issue between some rival apologists and/or linguists is whether the Islamic deity is capable of deception, and if he is, whether this is a moral act. But even more specifically does the Scripture of Islam, namely: the Qur'an or any other authoritative Islamic source explicitly identify Allah as a deceiver or an entity that participates in deceit?

Germane to the topic is one of the key Arabic words that appears in the Qur'an "makr". The meaning of which is frequently contested or debated among these individuals. The Arabic noun: Makr comes from the triliteral root meem, kaaf, raah (Arabic: م ك ر) and occurs 43 times in the Quran. Nearly every English translation of the Qur'an whether made by Muslims or Orientalists translate the term and it's derivatives, primarily (or most often) as plotting, planning, devising or scheming. At minimum these words could appear to be taken as morally neutral translations and do not in themselves denote any nefarious intent that could be ascribed to the subjects/objects identified. I will propose that this rendering in English is not an adequate reflection of the word or it's derivatives. These translations have left it a little open ended in that they have not conveyed the full meaning of the term. In the future I will also provide an important explanation for why I think these terms are so often translated inadequately. 

Makr occurs in the Qur'an in three derived forms: 

  1. 22 times as the verb makara (مَكَرَ)
  2. 19 times as the noun makr (مَكْر)
  3. Twice as the active participle mākirīn (مَٰكِرِين)

In due time, I will cover every usage of makr in all of the passages, and in the next post I will cover some pertinent examples. Before I move into investigating the usage in some of the essential passages that will help us ascertain the meaning, firstly it may be helpful to provide the Arabic-English dictionary definition.

LEXICAL DEFINITION


Our first lexicon gives us the straight forward meaning of makr from classical Arabic, and it's meaning/applicability to all 43 usages in the Qur'an:

"Miim-Kaf-Ra = To practice DECEIT OR GUILE or circumvention, practice evasion or elusion, to plot, to exercise art or craft or CUNNING, act with policy, practice stratagem.
makara vb. (1)

perf. act. 3:54, 3:54, 7:123, 13:42, 14:46, 16:26, 16:45, 27:50, 40:45, 71:22
impf. act. 6:123, 6:123, 6:124, 8:30, 8:30, 8:30, 10:21, 12:102, 16:127, 27:70, 35:10

n.vb. 7:99, 7:99, 7:123, 10:21, 10:21, 12:31, 13:33, 13:42, 14:46, 14:46, 14:46, 27:50, 27:50, 27:51, 34:33, 35:10, 35:43, 35:43, 71:22

pcple. act. 3:54, 8:30 
LL, V7, p: 256 (Project Root List)"

Here are a few excerpts from Wiki explaining Lane's Lexicon. The Arabic–English Lexicon is an Arabic–English dictionary complied by Edward William Lane (died 1876). It was published in eight volumes during the second half of the 19th century. It consists of Arabic words defined and explained in the English language. But Lane does not use his own knowledge of Arabic to give definitions to the words. Instead, the definitions are taken from older Arabic dictionaries, primarily medieval Arabic dictionaries. Lane translates these definitions into English, and he carefully notes which dictionaries are giving which definitions.Lane's lexicon is based on medieval Arabic dictionaries plus the dictionary Taj al-ʿArus ("Crown of the Bride") by al-Zabidi which was completed in the early 19th century. In total, 112 lexicographic sources are cited in the work. Lane also read widely in order to provide examples for the entries.The lexicon was designed to consist of two "Books" or Divisions: one for the common, classical words, another for the rare ones. Volume I of the First Division was published in 1863; Volume II in 1865; Volume III in 1867; Volumes IV and V in 1872. A total of 2,219 pages were proofread by Lane himself. Lane's great-nephew Stanley Lane-Poole published Volumes VI, VII and VIII from 1877–1893 using Lane's incomplete notes left behind him. Lane's work focuses on classical vocabulary, thus later scholars found it necessary to compile supplements to the work for post-classical usage. Therefore Lane's Lexicon offers us insight into both the classical and post-classical usage of the noun:

1 مَكَرَ ذ , aor. مَكُرَ , (Msb, TA,) inf. n. مَكْرٌ; (S, A, Msb, K;) and ↓ امكر ; (Msb;) He practised deceit, guile, or circumvention; or he practised deceit, guile, or circumvention, desiring to do to another a foul, an abominable, or an evil, action, clandestinely, or without his knowing whence it proceeded; syn. خَدَعَ; (Msb;) and of the inf. n. خَدِيعَةٌ: (S, A, K:) he practised an evasion or elusion, a shift, an artifice, or artful contrivance or device, a machination, a trick, a plot, a stratagem, or an expedient; he plotted; or he exercised art, craft, cunning, or skill, in the management or ordering of affairs, with excellent consideration or deliberation, and ability to manage according to his own free will; syn. of the inf. n. إِِحْتِيَالٌ: (S, TA:) or to this explanation, conveyed by احتيال as the syn. of the inf. n., should be added secretly, or privately: (Lth, TA:) مَكْرٌ is praised or dispraised according to the nature of its object. (El-Basáir.) [For further explanation, see what follows.] ― -b2- It is trans. by means of بِ: and also, accord. to Z, by itself: (MF:) [but I know not any instance of its being trans. by itself: except as meaning he plotted a thing: see مَكْرَ السَّيِّئ in the Kur, xxxv. 41, cited voce سَيِّئٌ:] you say مَكَرَ بِهِ, (S, A, TA,) aor. and inf. n. as above, (S, TA,) meaning, He deceived, beguiled, or circumvented, him; or he deceived, beguiled, or circumvented, him, and desired to do him a foul, an abominable, or an evil, action, clandestinely, or without his knowing whence it proceeded: &c.: (S, A, TA:) syn. كَادَهُ: or it differs [somewhat] from كاده, accord. to Aboo-Hilál El-'Askeree: (TA:) some say, that مكر به signifies as above with the addition of feigning the contrary of his real intentions; which كاده does not imply: or this latter signifies “ he did him harm, ” or “ mischief; ” and the former, he did him harm, or mischief, clandestinely. (MF, voce كاد.) See art. خدع. ― -b3- مَكَرَ also signifies He managed with thought, or consideration, or acted with policy, and practised stratagem, in war. (TA.) ― -b4- مَكَرَ ا@للّٰهُ and ↓ أَمْكَرَ are syn., (IKtt, Msb,) signifying, (tropical:) God recompensed, or requited, for مَكْر [or the practising deceit, &c.]: (Lth, * Msb, TA: *) or مَكْرُ ا@للّٰهِ signifies God's granting a man respite or delay, and enabling him to accomplish his worldly aims [so as to bring upon himself the punishment due to his evil actions]: (Er-Rághib, TA:) or, accord. to IAth, God's causing his trials to befall his enemies, exclusively of his friends: or his taking men by little and little, so that they do not reckon upon it, bestowing upon them renewed favours for acts of obedience which are imagined to be accepted whereas they are rejected. (TA.) An Arabic-English Lexicon. London. Williams and Norgate. 1863.

As recorded by Lane, while some of the later commentators attempt to tone or water down the direct linguistic meaning, ultimately they merely succeeded in offering theological speculation that is intended to account for how Allah is suppose to have participated in human affairs with deception e.g. whether he deceives directly and/or indirectly. However this has no direct import or bearing on the original meaning itself, but rather it points to a later theologically refined rendering of the term. This eventually influenced or caused many Islamic theologians to render makr into English based on a theological disposition rather than a purely linguistical analysis. More on this issue in a future post.

Even in our post-modern period, nothing has changed the directly deriving meaning of the term, that is the practice of guile, deceit or trickery. The classical and even modern Arabic, (as confirmed by Al-Mawrid: A Modern Arabic-English Dictionary) both attest to this usage:

In Modern Standard Arabic. Al-Mawrid is a bilingual Arabic-English dictionary, the most commonly used dictionary for English language learners, now in its
22nd edition. In Arabic word ‘makara,’ literally means to deceive, delude, cheat, double-cross, dupe. 


Raymond Ibrahim an author for the the Middle Eastern Forum (and JihadWatch) says the following: 

"In the original Arabic, the word translated (actually, euphemized) into English as "planner/plotter"—makar—most literally denotes (and, to Arabic ears, connotes) deception. Moreover, according to the definitive Hans Wehr Arabic-English dictionary, the trilateral root "m-k-r" means "to deceive, delude, cheat, dupe, gull, double-cross." One who takes on the attributes of "m-k-r"—such as Allah in the Koran—is described as "sly, crafty, wily, an impostor, a swindler." In colloquial Arabic, a makar is a sly trickster." (MEF)

Hans Wehr, author of the leading Arabic-English dictionary, defines "makara" as "deceive, delude, cheat, dupe, gull, double-cross." (Hans Wehr, A Dictionary of Modern Written Arabic (London: Macdonald and Evans LTD, 1974), 917.

An updated version (1979) of the same dictionary is available online. (see the above right). The 4th edition is also available here. Here is a the definition provided in text format:

"makara u (makr) to DECEIVE, DELUDE, CHEAT, DUPE, GULL, DOUBLE-CROSS… 
III to try TO DECEIVE… 
makr cunning, craftiness, slyness, wiliness, double-dealing, DECEPTION, 
TRICKERY… 
makr ruse, artifice, stratagem, wile, trick dodge 
makkar and… makur cunning, sly, crafty, wily, shrewd, artful; sly, crafty person, IMPOSTER, SWINDLER 
makir pl.… makara sly cunning, wily (Hans-Wehr, P. 1076)

From Lissan Al Arab 

"مكر مكر : الليث : المكر احتيال في خفية  
Makara Makara : trickery, deceiving, tricking in secret/ hiddenly 
جري مجرى هذا القول قوله تعالى : يخادعون الله وهو خادعهم و الله يستهزئ بهم ، مما جاء في كتاب الله - عز وجل . ابن سيده : المكر الخديعة والاحتيال ، مكر يمكر مكرا ومكر به . وفي حديث الدعاء : اللهم امكر لي ولا تمكر بي
 "And it can go as Allah says: They trick Allah and he tricks him and Allah mocks them"
Which came from the book of Allah the most high Ibn Sayda: Makir:  Trickery and Slyness Makara, Yumakar, Makran and Makara behi And in the Hadith Duaa (Prayer): "O  Allah deceive for me and do not deceive me."" Or as Google Translate has it: "Jerry course of this to say the verse: He Khadahm deceive Allah and God mocks them, which came in the Book of Allah - the Almighty. Son of his master: cunning deceit and fraud, deceit plotted subtle and cunning it. In an interview to pray: God Amkr me nor my Tmkr"

In addition there are two online Arabic dictionaries that report makr as as guile, trick, deception, conniving and sly in Arabic (1,2).

A literal rendering of the Qur'an into English is made by several Muslim speaking Arabic-English translators of the Qur'an: "And they cheated/deceived and God cheated/deceived, and God (is) the best (of) the cheaters/deceivers." 3:50 - Revealed in Madinah (English: Literal).

A Lexical Quran with a literal translation by Muhammad Ahmed and his daughter Samira Ahmed also translate many of the passages containing the word: Makr, literally and explicitly. e.g. "And they cheated/deceived and God cheated/deceived, and God (is) the best (of) the cheaters/deceivers." (3:54).

Google translate (along with 10 other Arabic-English translation websites; see below) whether translating, the noun, verb, or adjective have makr exactly the same as the authoritative dictionaries and lexicons:

Note: what is interesting, is that occasionally , when certain Qur'anic passages are put into the translator, the translation is often changed into planned/plotted/devised, a meaning not attested to any where by the usage in and of itself or else-where in the translator. Hence standard usage is completely unanimous. This demonstrates that possibly certain Muslims used the "suggest an edit" function in order to alter the translation when Qur'anic passages are inserted into the translator itself. This modification would be to help sustain or reckon the translation as compatible with many of the "official" mainstream English translations made by Muslims themselves, who in turn influence many orientalists to cohere as part of tradition and agree with such renderings.

Here are all of the Website Dictionary Translators:


Finally while nearly every mainstream translator of the Qur'an has not translated makr as deceit many Muslim translators, have no problem translating Arabic words as deceitful in passages of the Qur'an, outside of official translations of the Qur'an. Perhaps the most obvious reason for this is because other Islamic literature is read much less often by English speaking non-Muslims, hence soft renderings are not as required. In sources outside the Qur'ran there is no set rule, no such standardization, regulation or conformity is as perfectly required by the more "official" and common translations. These other sources that cite verses from the Qur'an and translate them more reliably/accurately with the lexicons above include commentaries, books, ahadith, and history, more on this in the coming post.